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Implied Odds

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  • Implied Odds

    Hello everyone

    I'm just thinking about implied odds situations and wanted an opinion on the following example:

    * You have a flush draw on the flop. So you have 4-1 odds. The villain bets half the pot, giving you 3-1 pot odds. This is a fold. However, you think you can induce a bet on the turn out of him. This would give you 4-1 odds by calling him on the flop and turn.

    Now this only looks like you're breaking even, so my question is would you look to try and induce 2 bets out of the villain to see profit over an extended period of time or is breaking even enough with draws?

    Also, taking the above example of the flush draw, if the villain bet the pot on the flop that gives you 2-1 pot odds. That means you would need to induce 2 bets out of him to break even and 3 to turn profit. Even if he bet half the pot on the turn and you called (still expecting him to check on the river), this is not much more than 2-1 (approx 2.4?) on your total investment.

    Is the lesson for me then whenever I have a pair or better and see a possible flush draw, bet the pot on the flop and evaluate on the turn looking to check the river because that way you will never ever give your opponent the odds to making any play profitable?

    Discuss lol
    Tom

    EDIT : Sorry, I think I have my idea of implied odds thought out incorrectly. I was thinking of it as overall investment vs. pot+additional bets. Should I be thinking of it as initial investment on the flop and see any more money that I put in later as 'ghost money' that I will get back?

    eg On the flop there is 100 in the pot. My opponent bets 50, giving me 3-1. I call, and there is 200 in the pot. I basically need to induce another 50 in order to break even (200-50 -- 4-1). On the turn he bets 100, which I call. Even though I put in 150 vs 400 in the pot, 100 of that was used as bait meaning I actually got 5-1 in the end against the 4-1 of hitting the flush.
    Last edited by tomrankin51; Mon Mar 21, 2011, 08:42 PM.
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