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implied pot ods

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  • implied pot ods

    i have forgotten how to count implied odds, so i started googleing and youtubeing but im getting 2 different versions, so im asking which formula for fraction calculating is correct...(not the ratio 1:4, 1:5 etc, though it should be same that 1:4 is same as 1/5, 1:5 is same as 1/6)

    first:
    villain_bet / (villain_bet + my_turn_call+ pot_size + remaining_stack )

    second:
    villain_bet / (villain_bet + pot_size + remaining_stack )

    i reused my hand here, lets say oponent haz just AQo, so i have 9 outs = 18% OTT

    so which one?
    1.08/(1.08 + 1.08 + 1.08 + 2.70)=0.18=need 9 outs OTT
    or
    1.08/(1.08 + 1.08 + 2.70)=0.22=need 11 outs OTT

  • #2
    I would not include "my_turn_call" in the formula as it's your money that you will win back so there is no point in taking that into account imo.

    But any way, don't start calculating/act on implied odds in 100BB situations. For implied odds you need 200-300BB or more.
    In this hand, there is no telling if he will pay for your nutflush if you hit OTR and you cannot be sure the a-high flush will be enough to win so just act on immidiate odds and fold this as you did.

    (BTW, I would fold pre, but I know you don't... but know A6s is the most rotten suited ace in the deck )

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    • #3
      Yes, look at your immediate odds with one card to come is 4 : 1 and the price you are getting on the turn to call is 2.16 / 1.08 = 2 : 1 (sorry ratio method).

      For the extra implied odds you need another 2 x 1.08 and the effective stack needs to be deep enough to cover this. Which is true as the villain has $2.71 behind.

      Though taking the risk on the turn call are you going to be paid the rest when you hit?

      Comment


      • #4
        Hi,

        Implied odds are the total money you expect to win if you make the best hand, divided by the amount to call. So for example, if there is $100 in the pot, and villain bets $100 on the turn with another $500 behind for the river, your immediate pot odds are 2-1 ($200 in the pot when you face calling $100) and your maximum implied odds are 7-1 ($200 in the pot + $500 more to win on the river when you get there). So this is formula 2 in your post. Also note implied odds are a judgement call, it's not good enough to say oh I have 7-1 implied odds so I can call... the villain has to give the money up too. So if you felt he would only reasonably pay off $100 more no the river when you make your hand, then the implied odds would be 3-1 ($200 in the pot + $100 more expected on the river)
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        • #5
          Originally posted by rkleefstra View Post
          But any way, don't start calculating/act on implied odds in 100BB situations. For implied odds you need 200-300BB or more.
          FWIW, I completely disagree with this. Implied odds even have relevance pre-flop in 50bb tournament situations. In cash games, the lack of implied odds is why I generally don't go set-mining - or playing suited connectors - against short-stacks.
          If you ignored implied odds 100bb deep, you would fold an OESD on the flop if villain bet half pot. When was the last time you did that?
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          • #6
            Originally posted by ArtySmokesPS View Post
            FWIW, I completely disagree with this. Implied odds even have relevance pre-flop in 50bb tournament situations. In cash games, the lack of implied odds is why I generally don't go set-mining - or playing suited connectors - against short-stacks.
            If you ignored implied odds 100bb deep, you would fold an OESD on the flop if villain bet half pot. When was the last time you did that?
            You are allowed to disagree
            What I mean is, implied odds on 100BB should be used to push odds only small like OESD OTF against a half pot bet. If villain is short, you should fold your OESD.

            Comment

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